UPSC Prelims 2022 Answers and Explanation

 



Q.1.  Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide? (Agriculture Geography/Environment) 

  1. Cotton

  2. Rice 

  3. Sugarcane 

  4. Wheat 


Answer: B 


Explanation: Rice is the correct answer. Anaerobic decomposition of organic material in flooded rice fields produces methane (CH4), which escapes to the atmosphere primarily by diffusive transport through the rice plants during the growing season. Upland rice fields, which are not flooded and therefore do not produce significant quantities of CH4, account for approximately 10 percent of the global rice production and about 15 percent of the global rice area under cultivation. (IPCC) Additionally, nitrous oxide is emitted when nitrogen-based fertilizers are used in agriculture.


Q.2.  System of Rice Intensification of cultivation in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (Agriculture Geography/Environment) 


  1. Reduced seed requirement 

  2. Reduced methane production 

  3. Reduced electricity consumption 


Select the correct answers using the codes given below: 


  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only 

  3. 1 and 3 only 

  4. 1, 2 and 3 


Answer: D


Explanation: System of Rice Intensification of cultivation is an agro-ecological organic method of rice cultivation. In this process, young seedlings are planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern field.  Land is irrigated intermittently (means kept wet and dry alternatively) which keeps the soil moist but not inundated, and frequent inter cultivation with weeding that actively aerates the soil. SRI originated in Madagascar in 1980s. It is not considered as a standard technology, yet in evolving phase. According to Cornell, SRI leads to 20%-100% or more increased yields, up to a 90% reduction in required seed, and up to 50% water savings (reduced electricity consumption). Option 2 is also correct, check explanation of questions number one asked by UPSC, in SRI method the field is kept dry for a significant amount of time, therefore it may produce less methane as well. 


Q.3. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? (World Lakes/Environment) 


  1. Lake Victoria

  2. Lake Faguibine

  3. Lake Oguta 

  4. Lake Volta


Answer: B 


Explanation: It can be solved through the power of elimination, if you have a fair idea of the regional geography of Africa. 


Lake Victoria cannot be the answer, since it is the largest freshwater lake of Africa. Lake Volta is an artificial reservoir located in Ghana. Lake Oguta is located in Nigeria, it has plenty of water. However, UNEP & NASA has reported that Lake Faguibine of Mali has turned into a desert. 


Q.4. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ? (India Geography) 


  1. Cauvery 

  2. Manjira 

  3. Pennar 

  4. Tungabhadra


Answer: C


Explanation: Gandikota in Andhra Pradesh is a village which is popular for being home to the grand canyon of India. Situated in Kadapa district, the picturesque canyon is set on the banks of the Pennar River close to the Gandikota Fort. (TOI) 


Q.5 Consider the following pairs (India Geography) 


  1. Namcha Barwa - Garhwal Himalaya

  2. Nanda Devi -  Kumaon Himalaya 

  3. Nokrek - Sikkim Himalaya


Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?


  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 only

  3. 1 and 3

  4. 3 only


Answer: B 


Explanation: Question level was easy. 


Namcha Barwa: Situated in Arunachal Pradesh. It is the place near which Brahmaputra enters into India and makes a Gorge. 


Nandadevi: It is tricky, since Nandadevi lies at the border of Garhwal and Kumaon Himalaya. (option 2 might be correct) 


Norkek: The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the northeast of India on the Tura Range, which forms part of the Meghalaya Plateau.



Q.6 The term Levant often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following. regions ? (World Regional Geography)


  1. Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

  2. Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco. 

  3. Region along the Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa. 

  4. The entire coastal areas of the Mediterranean Sea. 


Answer: A 


  • The image given above is self explanatory. 


Q.7 Consider the following countries: (World Regional Geography)


1. Azerbaijan 

2. Kyrgyzstan 

3. Tajikistan 

4 Turkmenistan 

5. Uzbekistan 


Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?


(a) 1,2 and 

(b) 1,2, 3 and 4 only 

(c) 3,4 and 5 only 

(d) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5


Answer: C



  • The image given above is self explanatory. 


Q.8 With reference to India, consider the following statements: (India Geography) 


1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 

2. Monazite contains thorium. 

3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. 

4. Government bodies only can process or export monazite.


Which of the statements given above are correct?


  1. 1,2 and 3 only 

  2. 1,2 and 4 only

  3. 3 and 4 only

  4. 1,2, 3 and 4


Answer: B 


Explanation: 

  • Statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2 is correct.
  • Statement 3 is partially correct. Not entirely but: 

Source: PIB

  • Statement 4 is correct. 

Q.9. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the: (Climate) 

 

  1. First half of the month of June 

  2. Second half of the month of June

  3. First half of the month of July 

  4. Second half of the month of July


Answer: B 


Explanation:  Summer Solstice date in the northern hemisphere 21st June (clearly the second half of the month of June). 


Q.10. Consider the following pairs: (India Geography) 


Wetland/Lake               Location

  1. Hokera -                  Punjab

  2. Renuka -                  Himachal Pradesh 

  3. Rudrasagar -            Tripura 

  4. Sasthamkotta -         Tamilnadu 


How many pairs given above are correctly matched ? 


  1. Only one pair 

  2. Only two pairs

  3. Only three pairs

  4. All four pairs 


Answer: B 



Source: https://lotusarise.com/ramsar-sites-in-india-upsc/



Q.11. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth ? (Physical Geography) 


  1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 

  2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 

  3. Power grids could be damaged. 

  4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 

  5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.

  6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 

  7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. 


Select the correct answer using the code given below:


  1. 1,2, 4 and 5 only

  2. 2, 3,5,6 and 7 only

  3. 1,3,4,6 and 7 only 

  4. 1,2,3, 4,5, 6 and 7 


Answer: C 


Explanation: 


GPS and navigation systems could fail. - Correct

Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. - Incorrect

Power grids could be damaged. - Correct  

Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. - Correct  

Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.  - Incorrect

Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. - Correct  

Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. - Correct  


Q.12. Climate Action Tracker which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: (Environment/Climate Change) 


  1. Database created by a coalition of research organizations. 

  2. Wing of the International Panel of Climate Change.

  3. Committee under United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 

  4. Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank. 


Answer: A


Explanations:  The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of "holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C." A collaboration of two organisations, Climate Analytics and New Climate Institute, the CAT has been providing this independent analysis to policymakers since 2009. (CAT) 


Q.13. Consider the following statements . (Environment/Climate Change) 


  1. The Climate Group is an international organization that drives action by building large non-profit climate networks and runs them. 

  2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100". 

  3. EP100 brings together Companies leading companies committed to driving  innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 

  4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 

  5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition".


Which of the statements given above are correct? 


  1. 1,2, 4 and 5

  2. 1,3 and 4 only 

  3. 2,3 and 5 only 

  4. 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 


Answer: B


Explanation: Statement 2 is incorrect, led by The Climate Group and the Alliance to Save Energy. Statement 5 is also incorrect.


Source: https://www.theclimategroup.org/about-us



Q.14.  “If rainforest and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys”. Which of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? (Environment/Biodiversity) 


  1. The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation. 

  2. Algae from the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive. 

  3. Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining balance and soil stabilization.
    Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. 

  4. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients. 


Answer: D


Explanation: 


Functions of Wetlands:


  • Flood storage

  • Help in ground water recharge.

  • Natural wetlands are underlain by aquifers with a high potential for water supply.

  • Wetland vegetation can reduce shoreline erosion.

  • Aquatic vegetation helps in removing 90% of the dissolved nutrients like nitrogen and phosphorus and also in adsorption of heavy metals. (role of kidneys)


Source: http://wgbis.ces.iisc.ernet.in/energy/TR86/intro.html


Q.15. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements. (Environment/Biodiversity) 


  1. It is a fungus.

  2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 

  3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. 


Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 


  1. 1 only

  2. 3 only

  3. 1 and 2

  4. 2 and 3 


Answer: C 


Explanation:  Statement three is incorrect, as it is grown in the foothills of Kashmir, Himachal and Uttrakhand Himalayas. 


https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/food-wine/gucchi-mushrooms-cost-health-benefits-6484874/


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Q.16. Which of the following is not a bird? (Environment/Biodiversity)


  1. Golden Mahseer

  2. Indian Nightjar

  3. Spoonbill

  4. White Iblis 


Answer: A


Explanation: 


Golden Mahseer: Mahseer roughly translates as mahi – fish and sher – tiger, and hence is also referred as tiger among fish.

Indian Nightjar: Cryptically-colored night bird. Note white “moustache” streak, golden-brown collar, and pointed buff-and-black feathers above the wing.

Spoonbill: Distinctive, large white wading bird with a spatula for a bill.

White Iblis: A dark, cryptically patterned nightjar with a bold buff collar, and prominent pale gray patches on the upperparts. 


Source: https://ebird.org/; https://www.wwfindia.org/ 


Q.17. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? (Agriculture Geography) 


  1. Alfalfa

  2. Amaranth

  3. Chickpea

  4. Clover

  5. Purslane (Kulfa)

  6. Spinach 


Select the correct answers using the code given below: 


  1. 1, 3 and 4 only

  2. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

  3. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

  4. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6


Answer: A


Explanation:


  • Alfalfa: Yes

  • Amaranth: Yes

  • Chickpea: Yes

  • Clover: Yes

  • Purslane (Kulfa): No

  • Spinach: No 


Confusing: Since 1, 2, 3 and 4 is not the option, we can go with 1, 3 and 4 only.

Q.18. The  “Miyawaki Method” is well-known for the: (Urban Geography)


  1. Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas. 

  2. Development of gardens using genetically modified flora. 

  3. Creation of mini forests in urban areas.

  4. Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and sea surfaces. 


Answer: C 


Explanation: The Telangana government has introduced the Japanese “Miyawaki” method of afforestation to grow urban forests and expand the green cover as well as to meet the stipulated plantation target under the Telanganaku Haritha Haaram (TKHH).


Source:https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/miyawaki-method


Q.19. Consider the following states: (India Geography) 


  1. Andhra Pradesh

  2. Kerala 

  3. Himachal Pradesh

  4. Tripura 


How many of the above are generally known as Tea-Producing States? 


  1. Only one state

  2. Only two states

  3. Only three states

  4. All four states


Answer: C 


Explanation: Tea Producing States of India: 



Q.20. Consider the following statements : (World Regional Geography) 

  1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in recent years.

  2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.

  3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.

  4. For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.

  5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 2 and 4

  2. 3 and 5

  3. 1, 3 and 4

  4. 1 and 2

 Answer: C 

  • Statement 2 is incorrect (Vietnam is a Marxist–Leninist one-party state based on democratic centralism).
  • Statement 5 is incorrect (Manufacturing is the emerging sector). 

Source: https://www.worldbank.org/en/country/vietnam/overview#1

Q.21. Consider the following pairs : (India Geography) 

Reservoirs                      States

1. Ghataprabha    ---      Telangana

2. Gandhi Sagar   ---      Madhya Pradesh

3. Indira Sagar     ---  Andhra Pradesh

4. Maithon           ---  Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? 

  1. Only one pair

  2. Only two pairs

  3. Only three pairs

  4. All four pairs

Answer: A 

Explanation: 

  • Ghataprabha reservoir is situated in Belgaum (Karnataka).

  • Gandhisagar is situated in Mandsaur, Madhya Pradesh. 

  • Indira Sagar is situated in Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh. 

  • Maithon reservoir is situated near Dhanbad in Jharkhand. 

Q.22. In India what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? (India Geography) 

1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.

2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.

3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.

4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below : 

  1. 1, 2 and 3

  2. 3 and 4 only

  3. 1 and 2 only

  4. 1, 2 and 4

Answer: A 

Explanation: CCO does not ensure that the coal is supplied to end users, except that rest of the work and responsibilities are given to CCO.

Source: https://coal.nic.in/sites/default/files/2022-01/PIB1780888.pdf

Q.23. Consider the following statements : (Urban Geography) 

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.

2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B 

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. The India Sanitation Coalition is not directly funded by the Government of India and WHO. Statement 2 is correct. 

Q.24. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (India Environment) 

  1. Central Water Commission

  2. Central Ground Water Board

  3. Central Ground Water Authority

  4. National Water Development Agency

Answer: C 

Explanation: Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country.

Source: http://cgwb.gov.in/aboutcgwa.html

Q.25. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’? (World Environment/Oceanography) 

  1. It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

  2. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

  3. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

  4. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer: A 

Explanation: The Polar Code is intended to cover the full range of shipping-related matters relevant to navigation in waters surrounding the two poles – ship design, construction and equipment; operational and training concerns; search and rescue; and, equally important, the protection of the unique environment and ecosystems of the polar regions.

Source: https://www.imo.org/en/OurWork/Safety/Pages/polar-code.aspx

Q.26. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements.  (India Geography) 

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.

2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

 Which of the statements given above are correct ?

  1. 1 and 3

  2. 2 and 4

  3. 3 and 4

  4. 1 and 4

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

  • Statement 1 is correct
  • Statement 2 is incorrect, since the Tea Board of India is a Statutory body under the Ministry of Commerce. 
  • Statement 3 is incorrect, Head Office is located in Kolkata. 
  • Statement 4 is correct. 

Source: https://www.teaboard.gov.in/TEABOARDCSM/NA==

Q.27. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”? (Environment) 

  1. Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound.

  2. Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country.

  3. Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development.

  4. Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme.

Answer: A 

Source:https://medium.com/disruptive-design/what-is-greenwashing-how-to-spot-it-and-stop-it-c44f3d130d5

Q.28. Consider the following statements : (Climate) 

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.

2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only

  2. 2 only

  3. Both 1 and 2

  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

The study of clouds, where they occur, and their characteristics, play a key role in the understanding of climate change. Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth. Whether a given cloud will heat or cool the surface depends on several factors, including the cloud's altitude, its size, and the make-up of the particles that form the cloud. (NASA)

Q.29. Consider the following statements : (Political Geography)

1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.

2. Some people who fled from the South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.

3. Some people who fled from the civil war in Somalia live in the Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 only

  3. 2 and 3

  4. 3 only

Answer: C

Explanation: 

  • Statement 1 is incorrect, Bidibidi is located in Uganda. 

  • Statement 2 is correct. 

  • Statement 3 is also correct. 

Source:https://www.nationalgeographic.com/magazine/article/how-bidibidi-uganda-refugee-camp-became-city

Q.30. Consider the following countries : (World Regional Geography) 

1. Armenia

2. Azerbaijan

3. Croatia

4. Romania

5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?

  1. 1, 2 and 4

  2. 1 and 3

  3. 2 and 5

  4. 3, 4 and 5

Answer: C

Explanation: 

Turkic States: Where Turkic language is spoken. Turkic council is an international organization comprising prominent independent countries such as Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Turkey and Uzbekistan.  It was founded in Azerbaijan. Its Secretariat is situated in Istanbul. Turkmenistan is still an observer state.

Q.31. Consider the following statements : (India Geography) 

1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.

2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.

3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 only

  3. 1 and 3

  4. 3 only

Answer: B

Explanation: 

  • Bhadla Solar Park is the largest solar power park in the world. Bhadla Solar Park is located in Bhadla, a dry and sandy region in Rajasthan (The Hindu). 

  • Kerala's Cochin International Airport Ltd (CIAL) is the first airport in the world that would be running fully on solar power.

  • Largest floating Solar Power Plant located in Ramagundam, Telangana. 

Q.32. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Seam, consider the following statements:(Political Geography/Law of the Sea) 

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.

2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

 Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only

  2. 2 and 3 only

  3. 1 and 3 only

  4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

  • Statement 1 is correct. 

  • Statement 2 is correct

  • Statement 3 is correct

Source:https://www.un.org/depts/los/convention_agreements/texts/unclos/part2.htm

Q.33. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news? (Political Geography/Law of the Sea) 

  1. It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around the South China Sea.

  2. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in the East China Sea.

  3. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.

  4. Though the International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

Answer: B 

Source:https://www.drishtiias.com/daily-updates/daily-news-analysis/senkaku-islands

Q.34. Consider the following pairs:(World Regional Geography) 

Region often mentioned in the news                    Country

1. Anatolia                       -----                          Turkey

2. Amhara                        -----                    Ethiopia

3. Cabo Delgado              -----                       Spain

4. Catalonia                     -----                       Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. Only one pair

  2. Only two pairs

  3. Only three pairs

  4. All four pairs

Answer: B 

Explanation:

  • Asian part of Turkey is called Anatolia.

  • Amhara region is located in Ethiopia, it was in news due to the conflict and civil war conditions prevailing in the region. 

  • Cabo Delgado is situated in Mozambique. It was in news due to insurgency by fundamentalist Islamist militia. 

  • Catalonia is situated in Spain. It was in the news due to the prevailing cessationist movement on linguistic lines.   

Q.35. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: (Environment/Biodiversity) 

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.

2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.

3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2

  2. 2 only

  3. 1 and 3

  4. 3 only

Answer: A

Explanation: 

  • Statement 1 is correct: Refer Chapter V of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. 

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Act (1972) does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Mere apprehension cannot be the reason to capture and kill the wild animal. 

Q.36. Consider the following :(Environmental Problems) 

1. Carbon monoxide

2. Nitrogen oxide

3. Ozone

4. Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are the cause(s) of acid rain?

  1. 1, 2 and 3

  2. 2 and 4 only

  3. 4 only

  4. 1, 3 and 4

Answer: B 

Explanation: Oxides of Sulphur and Nitrogen spewed from numerous industries in Germany and U.K have caused widespread acid rains in Scandinavian countries. Source: Environment Geography, Singh, Savindra, page 491.

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